Locomotion and movement - skeletal system joints muscles mechanism of muscle contraction - Question Bank

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle?
A) Striated, voluntary, and multinucleated
B) Unstriated, involuntary, and uninucleated
C) Striated, involuntary, and uninucleated
D) Unstriated, voluntary, and multinucleated
2. The skeletal structure of the arm consists of:
A) Femur, tibia, fibula
B) Humerus, radius, ulna
C) Clavicle, scapula, humerus
D) Tibia, fibula, patella
3. What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction?
A) To block myosin binding sites
B) To bind to troponin
C) To detach myosin heads from actin and energize them
D) To transport calcium ions
4. Which of the following is a type of synovial joint characterized by opposing surfaces that are flat or slightly curved, allowing gliding movements?
A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Ball-and-socket joint
D) Gliding joint
5. The 'H zone' within a sarcomere is the region that:
A) Contains only thin filaments
B) Contains only thick filaments
C) Is where thin and thick filaments overlap
D) Is bisected by the M line
6. What is the primary function of the hyoid bone?
A) Forming part of the jaw
B) Anchoring the tongue and providing attachment for muscles of swallowing
C) Protecting the brain
D) Connecting the rib cage to the sternum
7. The 'cross-bridge cycling' in muscle contraction refers to the:
A) Binding and unbinding of myosin heads to actin
B) Movement of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm
C) Repolarization of the sarcolemma
D) Synthesis of ATP
8. Which part of the vertebral column has the largest and strongest vertebrae to support body weight?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral
9. What is the total number of bones in the adult human body?
A) 206
B) 210
C) 200
D) 220
10. The 'Z line' or 'Z disc' marks the boundary of which functional unit?
A) Myofibril
B) Sarcomere
C) Sarcoplasm
D) Myosin filament
11. Which joint allows for flexion and extension, like in the fingers and toes?
A) Pivot joint
B) Gliding joint
C) Hinge joint
D) Saddle joint
12. What is the term for the connective tissue sheath that surrounds a fascicle (bundle of muscle fibers)?
A) Epimysium
B) Endomysium
C) Perimysium
D) Sarcolemma
13. The 'M line' is located in the center of which band in a sarcomere?
A) I band
B) A band
C) H zone
D) Z line
14. Which of the following is a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
A) Voluntary control and multinucleated
B) Involuntary control and striated
C) Voluntary control and unstriated
D) Involuntary control and unstriated
15. The process of muscle relaxation involves:
A) Calcium ions binding to troponin
B) ATP hydrolysis
C) Calcium ions being pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Myosin heads binding to actin
16. What is the substance that stores oxygen in muscle cells?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Myoglobin
C) Albumin
D) Keratin
17. The 'I band' in a sarcomere represents the region where:
A) Only thick filaments are present
B) Only thin filaments are present
C) Thin and thick filaments overlap
D) There are no filaments
18. What is the primary function of ligaments?
A) Connect muscles to bones
B) Connect bones to bones
C) Provide cushioning between bones
D) Store calcium
19. Which bone articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the knee joint?
A) Femur
B) Patella
C) Tibia
D) Fibula
20. The connection between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber is called the:
A) Synapse
B) Ganglion
C) Neuromuscular junction
D) Axon terminal
21. What is the term for the invagination of the sarcolemma that carries the action potential deep into the muscle fiber?
A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) T-tubule
C) Myofibril
D) M-line
22. Which of the following is NOT a component of the axial skeleton?
A) Skull
B) Vertebral column
C) Rib cage
D) Limb bones
23. What is the process by which a muscle fiber shortens?
A) Relaxation
B) Contraction
C) Tetanus
D) Resting potential
24. The 'A band' in a sarcomere represents the region where:
A) Only thin filaments are present
B) Only thick filaments are present
C) Thin and thick filaments overlap
D) There are no filaments
25. Which type of joint allows for rotation around a central axis, like in the neck (atlas-axis articulation)?
A) Hinge joint
B) Ball-and-socket joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Gliding joint
26. What is the primary protein that forms the thick filaments in muscle cells?
A) Actin
B) Tropomyosin
C) Myosin
D) Troponin
27. The 'red' color of skeletal muscles is due to the presence of:
A) Myoglobin
B) Hemoglobin
C) Actin
D) Myosin
28. Which part of the pelvis articulates with the femur?
A) Ilium
B) Ischium
C) Pubis
D) Acetabulum
29. Muscle fatigue is often associated with the accumulation of which metabolic byproduct?
A) Oxygen
B) Glucose
C) Lactic acid
D) ATP
30. What is the main function of tropomyosin in muscle contraction?
A) To bind to calcium ions
B) To block the myosin-binding sites on actin
C) To hydrolyze ATP
D) To transmit the nerve impulse
31. The skull is an example of which type of joint?
A) Hinge joint
B) Ball-and-socket joint
C) Suture joint
D) Pivot joint
32. Which bone is commonly called the 'funny bone'?
A) Humerus
B) Radius
C) Ulna
D) Clavicle
33. The elbow joint is primarily a type of:
A) Ball-and-socket joint
B) Hinge joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Saddle joint
34. What type of joint is found between the carpals and metacarpals?
A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Gliding joint
D) Ball-and-socket joint
35. What is the neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction that triggers muscle contraction?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Norepinephrine
36. Which part of a muscle cell contains the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A) Sarcolemma
B) Sarcoplasm
C) Sarcomere
D) Myofibril
37. The sliding filament theory explains muscle contraction by the:
A) Stretching of actin and myosin filaments
B) Shortening of individual sarcomeres
C) Expansion of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Increase in the number of myofibrils
38. A decrease in muscle mass due to lack of use is termed:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Atrophy
C) Hyperplasia
D) Dystrophy
39. What connective tissue connects muscles to bones?
A) Ligament
B) Cartilage
C) Tendon
D) Fascia
40. Which bones form the pectoral girdle?
A) Pelvis and femur
B) Clavicle and scapula
C) Sternum and ribs
D) Humerus and radius
41. What is the primary role of the skeletal system?
A) Digestion of food
B) Circulation of blood
C) Support, protection, and movement
D) Gas exchange
42. The sternum is also known as the:
A) Collarbone
B) Shoulder blade
C) Breastbone
D) Rib cage
43. What part of the vertebral column consists of five fused vertebrae?
A) Cervical vertebrae
B) Thoracic vertebrae
C) Lumbar vertebrae
D) Sacrum
44. Which joint allows for the greatest range of motion, like in the shoulder and hip?
A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Ball-and-socket joint
D) Saddle joint
45. What is the name of the membrane that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle?
A) Perimysium
B) Endomysium
C) Epimysium
D) Fascicle
46. The 'all-or-none' principle in muscle contraction refers to:
A) The response of a single muscle fiber to a stimulus
B) The response of an entire muscle to a stimulus
C) The speed of muscle relaxation
D) The duration of muscle tetanus
47. Which ion is crucial for initiating muscle contraction by binding to troponin?
A) Sodium (Na+)
B) Potassium (K+)
C) Calcium (Ca2+)
D) Magnesium (Mg2+)
48. What is the functional unit of muscle contraction?
A) Sarcomere
B) Myofibril
C) Sarcoplasm
D) Sarcolemma
49. The 'powerhouse' of the cell, responsible for ATP production, is abundant in muscle cells. What is this organelle?
A) Nucleus
B) Ribosome
C) Endoplasmic Reticulum
D) Mitochondrion
50. Which type of muscle tissue is characterized by voluntary control and striations?
A) Smooth muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Visceral muscle